Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 08:19
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
After 70 years of the crappiest computers ever made, why does IBM exist?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
‘We’re right at the epicenter’ - Meduza
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.